Name: 
 

Adv Bio Exam #1 (June 2004)


Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

1. 
The idea that fossils were the remnants of ancient forms of life was developed because
a.
fossils were found throughout the world.
b.
unique fossils are found in specific layers of stratified rocks.
c.
fossils resembled living organisms.
d.
fossils could be used to study past geologic events.
e.
all of these
 

2. 
The fossil record is incomplete because
a.
very few organisms were preserved as fossils.
b.
organisms tend to decay before becoming a fossil.
c.
animals with hard parts are preserved more easily.
d.
geological processes may destroy fossils.
e.
all of these
 

3. 
Fossils would include
a.
skeletons.
b.
shells.
c.
seeds.
d.
tracks.
e.
all of these
 

4. 
Which of the following organisms would you expect to find preserved as a fossil?
a.
a jellyfish
b.
a shelled arthropod such as a trilobite
c.
an earthworm
d.
a nematode
e.
a protistan such as an amoeba.
 

5. 
The geologic time scale is subdivided on the basis of
a.
the appearance of different radioactive isotopes in different strata.
b.
levels of background extinction.
c.
periods of mass extinction.
d.
both the appearance of different radioactive isotopes in different strata, and levels of background extinction.
e.
the appearance of different radioactive isotopes in different strata, levels of background extinction, and periods of mass extinction.
 

6. 
Macroevolution refers to changes in all but which one of the following?
a.
phyla
b.
classes
c.
species
d.
genera
e.
divisions
 

7. 
The large land mass that contained all the continents was called
a.
Laurasia.
b.
Pangea.
c.
Gondwana.
d.
Atlantis.
e.
all of these
 

8. 
Plate tectonic theory is based on
a.
a thermal convection model, in which cool material in the earth's mantle rises and spreads laterally beneath the crustal plates.
b.
the idea that the earth's crust is fragmented into rigid crusts that are sinking slowly beneath crustal plates.
c.
the idea that coacervate formation causes continents to drift apart slowly on their crustal plates.
d.
observations that the sea floor is slowly spreading away from oceanic ridges due to thermal convection in the mantle.
e.
all of these
 

9. 
The convergence in external morphology of sharks, penguins, and porpoises is attributed to
a.
reduced genetic variability in these groups.
b.
selection pressures that are common to these groups.
c.
reproductive isolation of these groups.
d.
identical genes in all three groups.
 

10. 
Phylogenetic relationships, when determined solely by the study of comparative morphology, may be incorrect due to
a.
morphological divergence.
b.
morphological convergence.
c.
adaptive radiation.
d.
extinction.
e.
homology
 

11. 
The wings of a bird and the wings of a butterfly are __________ and show morphological __________.
a.
homologous; convergence
b.
analogous; convergence
c.
homologous; divergence
d.
analogous; divergence
 

12. 
The bones in the forelimbs of a mammal
a.
can often be traced to a common ancestor.
b.
offer no evidence to support the theory of evolution.
c.
perform the same function no matter which species they are in.
d.
may exhibit either analogy or homology but not both when compared to the forelimb of another animal.
e.
show convergence with some invertebrate structures.
 

13. 
Which of the following structures are analogous but not homologous to each other?
a.
wing of a bird and the wing of a butterfly
b.
wing of a bird and the wing of a bat
c.
the dew claw of a dog and the little toe of a human
d.
the flipper of an aquatic animal and the arm of a human
 

14. 
The study of early life stages has revealed the conservative nature of the genes responsible for
a.
food procurement.
b.
reproductive behavior.
c.
embryonic development.
d.
size.
e.
intelligence.
 

15. 
The fact that many vertebrate embryos are more similar to one another than their respective adult stages are to one another may ultimately be due to
a.
environment.
b.
hormones.
c.
microevolution.
d.
genes.
e.
speciation.
 

16. 
Neutral mutations
a.
are not subjected to selection.
b.
occur at different rates at different times during evolution.
c.
confer a disadvantage.
d.
do not occur; either a gene enhances survival or it does not.
e.
account for the difference between hemoglobin in normal blood and that found in sickle-cell anemia.
 

17. 
The concept of a molecular clock is based on the idea that
a.
neutral mutations occur at regular rates.
b.
genetic relatedness can be determined by timing antibody-antigen reactions.
c.
radioactive isotopes decay at a constant rate.
d.
speciation is a rapid event.
e.
cytochrome c is very similar in primates.
 

18. 
Comparisons of protein similarity between species can reveal the degree of genetic kinship because
a.
the number of protein variations is limited.
b.
specific amino acids are dictated by known nucleotide sequences.
c.
gel electrophoresis converts proteins to nucleotides.
d.
protein can be hybridized with DNA.
e.
DNA is made by directions stored in proteins.
 

19. 
Which of the following statements about proteins is true?
a.
Neutral mutations may produce changes in the primary structure of proteins without affecting their function.
b.
It is possible to distinguish among proteins by subjecting them to electrophoresis.
c.
Humans, chimpanzees, and Rhesus monkeys have all been placed in the order Primates based upon the similarity in cytochrome c.
d.
The more closely related two forms are, the greater similarity there is in cytochrome c.
e.
all of these
 

20. 
Nucleic acid hybridization studies
a.
depend upon determining the exact sequence of nucleotides in a gene.
b.
can be done using a simple tissue homogenizer and computer-assisted analysis.
c.
involve generating new nucleotide sequences by using ultracentrifugation.
d.
measure the amount of heat necessary to separate two single strands of DNA that have been allowed to fuse together.
e.
give little clue as to how genes mutate.
 

21. 
The most conclusive evidence used in establishing the relationship of closely related species is
a.
fossil remains.
b.
taxonomy.
c.
nucleic acid hybridization.
d.
homologous structures.
e.
analogous structures.
 

22. 
Which of the following includes all the others?
a.
family
b.
phylum
c.
species
d.
class
e.
order
 

23. 
The higher taxa are groupings of
a.
species.
b.
genera.
c.
families.
d.
phyla.
e.
all of these
 

24. 
Which of the following groups represents the most closely related organisms?
a.
kingdoms
b.
species
c.
orders
d.
genera
e.
taxa
 

25. 
Organisms "X" and "Y" are suspected to be the same species. Which of the following will provide the ultimate proof?
a.
interbreeding
b.
anatomy
c.
physiology
d.
ecology
e.
behavior
 

26. 
Which of the following is NOT correct?
a.
The specific name can be used alone.
b.
The generic name can be used alone.
c.
The specific name must be preceded by a generic name.
d.
A family includes related genera.
e.
The kingdom is the most inclusive category.
 

27. 
"House fly" is the __________ applied to a small, pestiferous insect that is often an uninvited guest at dinner.
a.
scientific name
b.
genus and species
c.
universal name
d.
English common name
e.
Latin name
 

28. 
Which of the following is the least inclusive category?
a.
family
b.
order
c.
species
d.
kingdom
e.
genus
 

29. 
Phylogeny refers to what aspects of individuals?
a.
morphological traits
b.
evolutionary relationships
c.
physiological characteristics
d.
behavioral features
e.
all of these
 

30. 
The most widely accepted classification system in use today was proposed by
a.
Charles Darwin.
b.
James Hutton.
c.
Jean-Baptiste Lamarck.
d.
Robert Whittaker.
e.
Alfred Russel Wallace.
 

31. 
The only kingdom NOT characterized by heterotrophy is
a.
Eubacteria.
b.
Protista.
c.
Animalia.
d.
Fungi.
e.
Plantae.
 

32. 
Which kingdom includes single-celled organisms with a true nucleus?
a.
Archaebacteria.
b.
Protista.
c.
Animalia.
d.
Fungi.
e.
Plantae.
 

33. 
Which kingdom is exclusively heterotrophic including many predators and parasites?
a.
Archaebacteria.
b.
Protista.
c.
Animalia.
d.
Fungi.
e.
Plantae.
 

34. 
The "big bang" refers to
a.
an event marking the beginning of the universe.
b.
the appearance of life on earth.
c.
the impending end of the universe.
d.
an event marking the beginning of the universe and the appearance of life on earth.
 

35. 
Fossil evidence of the earliest living organisms now dates back
a.
570 million years.
b.
1.4 billion years.
c.
about 3.8 billion years.
d.
more than 5 billion years.
e.
to 4004 b.c.
 

36. 
The primitive earth's atmosphere did NOT contain
a.
water vapor.
b.
free nitrogen.
c.
free hydrogen.
d.
free oxygen.
e.
inert gases.
 

37. 
It is doubtful that many of the organic compounds essential for life, such as amino acids and nucleotides, would be able to assemble spontaneously in the presence of
a.
hydrogen.
b.
free oxygen.
c.
carbon dioxide.
d.
nitrogen.
e.
argon.
 

38. 
The earth is able to maintain water in a liquid state on its surface by virtue of
a.
insufficient life to use up the available water.
b.
the distance of the earth from the sun.
c.
the availability of oxygen in the atmosphere.
d.
the size of the earth.
e.
the distance of the earth from the sun, and the size of the earth.
 

39. 
The early atmosphere of the earth
a.
originated when gases from beneath the slowly solidifying crust were vented by vulcanism.
b.
did not exist before 1 billion years ago.
c.
probably consisted of hydrogen, methane, nitrogen, ammonia, and hydrogen sulfide, but no water vapor.
d.
all of these
 

40. 
Experiments like those first performed by Stanley Miller in 1953 demonstrated that
a.
DNA forms readily and reproduces itself.
b.
many of the lipids, carbohydrates, proteins, and nucleotides required for life can form under abiotic conditions.
c.
complete, functioning prokaryotic cells are formed after approximately three months.
d.
a lipid-protein film will eventually be formed by thermal convection.
e.
all of these
 

41. 
Who demonstrated the possibility of producing organic compounds from gases and water if the mixture is bombarded with a continuous spark discharge?
a.
Miller
b.
Starr
c.
Thompsen
d.
Pauling
e.
Platt
 

42. 
The Miller experiment designed to study the early synthesis of organic compounds included all of the following molecules EXCEPT
a.
methane.
b.
ammonia.
c.
water.
d.
oxygen.
 

43. 
In several experiments in which energy is supplied to a sealed chamber containing a mixture of gases simulating the primitive earth's atmosphere, what will be formed?
a.
amino acids
b.
sugars
c.
nucleotides
d.
adenine
e.
all of these
 

44. 
The primitive template that was thought to be used for protein synthesis was
a.
stratified mica crystals.
b.
clay crystals.
c.
the bottoms of tidal pools.
d.
dried-out mud flats.
e.
pockets in lava beds.
 

45. 
Protein synthesis on the primordial earth may have been catalyzed by _____ before the evolution of enzymes.
a.
DNA
b.
carbohydrates
c.
amino acids
d.
RNA
e.
lightning
 

46. 
The formation of polypeptide chains under abiotic conditions was important because they served as
a.
a supply of structural units.
b.
enzymes to catalyze reactions.
c.
subunits in the formation of DNA.
d.
subunits in the formation of RNA.
e.
a supply of structural units, and enzymes to catalyze reactions.
 

47. 
What step occurred first in the evolution of life?
a.
formation of lipid spheres
b.
formation of protein-RNA systems
c.
formation of membrane-bound protocells
d.
spontaneous formation of lipids, proteins, carbohydrates, and nucleotides under abiotic conditions
e.
formation of ATP
 

48. 
Which step in the evolution of life is the most complex and occurred last?
a.
formation of lipid spheres
b.
formation of protein-RNA systems
c.
formation of membrane-bound protocells
d.
spontaneous formation of lipids, proteins, carbohydrates, and nucleotides under abiotic conditions
e.
formation of ATP
 

49. 
Sidney Fox found that if heated protein chains were allowed to cool in water, they would
a.
form nitrogen, which would escape as a gas.
b.
form proteinoids.
c.
form small, stable spheres or microspheres.
d.
clot and form a complex latticework frame for chemical reactions.
e.
break down into the original amino acids from which the protein chain was made.
 

50. 
The first organisms
a.
had to be autotrophic.
b.
were parasitic.
c.
were heterotrophic.
d.
were aerobes.
e.
all of these
 

51. 
The first organisms were most probably
a.
autotrophic.
b.
multicellular.
c.
protozoans.
d.
prokaryotic.
 

52. 
The earliest organisms were probably unicellular
a.
autotrophs.
b.
aerobes.
c.
heterotrophs.
d.
eukaryotes.
 

53. 
Which geological era is the most ancient?
a.
Cenozoic
b.
Mesozoic
c.
Proterozoic
d.
Archean
e.
Paleozoic
 

54. 
The early atmosphere
a.
was essentially the same as occurs now.
b.
was changed drastically by the liberation of oxygen following the evolution of photosynthesis.
c.
was characterized by high concentrations of oxygen and ozone.
d.
was characterized by high concentrations of inert gases before the evolution of living organisms.
 

55. 
The presence of free oxygen in the atmosphere
a.
was a result of the accumulation of the byproducts of photosynthesis.
b.
prevented the further spontaneous generation of life.
c.
provided the opportunity to extract more energy through aerobic respiration.
d.
did not occur immediately after the earth was formed.
e.
all of these
 

56. 
When free oxygen (O2 ) became available in the atmosphere,
a.
some organisms changed their metabolism.
b.
oxygen was used as a dumping place for hydrogen ions and electrons.
c.
some cells and forms of life became extinct.
d.
aerobic respiration emerged.
e.
all of these
 

57. 
Mitochondrial DNA
a.
is replicated independently from nuclear DNA.
b.
transcribes some RNA and protein used by the mitochondrion.
c.
has some codons that have a different meaning from those of nuclear DNA.
d.
may have been the genetic instructions for an organism that lived symbiotically within a predatory form.
e.
all of these
 

58. 
Chloroplasts
a.
resemble photosynthetic bacteria.
b.
utilize the same pigments regardless of what organism they inhabit.
c.
apparently evolved mitochondria.
d.
utilize DNA derived from the nucleus.
e.
all of these
 

59. 
Which of the following is the strongest evidence for the hypothesis that present-day eukaryotic aerobes are the descendants of the successful symbiotic association of anaerobes and mitochondria?
a.
Mitochondria can produce ATP.
b.
A mitochondrion can survive indefinitely when removed from a eukaryotic cell.
c.
A mitochondrion has its own set of DNA molecules.
d.
Fossilized mitochondria are older than the oldest fossilized eukaryotes.
 

60. 
Mitochondrial DNA
a.
contains a few codons that specify amino acids other than those specified by codons of nuclear DNA.
b.
uses the same assortment of codons as does the DNA in the nucleus.
c.
can never replicate itself because DNA polymerases are not present in mitochondria.
d.
can never be transcribed or translated because RNA polymerases are not in mitochondria.
e.
can never replicate itself because there are no promoter sequences to initiate transcription.
 

61. 
The mitochondrion
a.
has its own DNA.
b.
transcribes its own DNA.
c.
has DNA that functions independently of nuclear DNA.
d.
has DNA that is somewhat different from nuclear DNA.
e.
all of these
 

62. 
Geological time is divided into major divisions known as
a.
eras.
b.
epochs.
c.
periods.
d.
all of these
 

63. 
Which Paleozoic geological period is the most recent?
a.
Carboniferous
b.
Permian
c.
Cambrian
d.
Devonian
e.
Ordovician
 

64. 
Which characterizes the earth during the Cambrian period?
a.
trilobites abundant, extensive shallow seas at tropical latitudes
b.
active predators, land masses at the poles
c.
adaptive radiation of fish, land masses at the poles
d.
first eukaryotes, Pangea land mass
 

65. 
What was the most abundant and conspicuous animal during the Cambrian?
a.
primates
b.
trilobites
c.
fish
d.
cephalopods
e.
sea scorpions
 

66. 
Insects became abundant during which period?
a.
Carboniferous
b.
Devonian
c.
Silurian
d.
Ordovician
e.
Cambrian
 

67. 
Fossil fuels were formed in which period?
a.
Carboniferous
b.
Devonian
c.
Silurian
d.
Ordovician
e.
Cambrian
 

68. 
The great burst of diversification in metazoan families, especially those with marine representatives, occurred during which geological period?
a.
Silurian
b.
Devonian
c.
Ordovician
d.
Carboniferous
 

69. 
Much of the fossil fuel used by humans today represents the organic remains of organisms that lived during which geological era?
a.
Carboniferous
b.
Devonian
c.
Silurian
d.
Permian
 

70. 
All earth's land mass was located in a single continent, Pangea, during which period(s)?
a.
Cretaceous
b.
Permian
c.
Triassic
d.
Jurassic
e.
both Permian and Triassic
 

71. 
The largest extinction the world has ever known occurred at the end of which period?
a.
Cretaceous
b.
Permian
c.
Triassic
d.
Jurassic
e.
Tertiary
 

72. 
Which of the following events did not take place during the Mesozoic?
a.
an asteroid impact and the extinction of the dinosaurs
b.
origination of mammals and gymnosperms as the dominant plants
c.
breakup of Pangea and evolution of angiosperms
d.
first land vertebrates, the amphibians, arise
e.
the Age of the Dinosaurs
 

73. 
The greatest mass extinction in the history of life on earth occurred between which two geological periods?
a.
Devonian and Carboniferous
b.
Silurian and Devonian
c.
Triassic and Permian
d.
Cretaceous and Tertiary
 

74. 
The extensive adaptive radiation of the mammals occurred during which geological era?
a.
Paleozoic
b.
Cretaceous
c.
Cenozoic
d.
Mesozoic
 

75. 
Which geological era is the most recent?
a.
Cenozoic
b.
Mesozoic
c.
Proterozoic
d.
Archean
e.
Paleozoic
 

76. 
Which of the following are of the smallest size?
a.
viruses
b.
bacteria
c.
fungi
d.
protistans
e.
plants
 

77. 
Which of the following could be called "pathogens"?
a.
viruses
b.
bacteria
c.
protozoans
d.
bacteria and protozoans only, because they are alive
e.
viruses, bacteria, and protozoans
 

78. 
Bacteria can obtain their nutrition by
a.
photosynthesis.
b.
chemosynthesis.
c.
heterotrophy.
d.
both a and b
e.
all of these
 

79. 
Spherical bacteria are called
a.
bacilli.
b.
spirilla.
c.
cocci.
d.
bacteriophages.
e.
all of these
 

80. 
Peptidoglycan is
a.
found in the chromosomes of most bacteria.
b.
composed of polysaccharides crosslinked with proteins.
c.
composed of long polypeptides held together by disulfide bridges.
d.
a unique combination of protein lipid and fat.
e.
found in the chromosomes of most bacteria, and is composed of long polypeptides held together by disulfide bridges.
 

81. 
Which of the following distinguishes the bacterial flagellum from those of eukaryotes?
a.
quantity per cell
b.
general appearance
c.
function
d.
mechanism of movement
e.
all of these
 

82. 
Which statement about bacteria is true?
a.
They are diploid organisms.
b.
They produce gametes.
c.
They possess circular DNA molecules.
d.
They are eukaryotic.
 

83. 
Some bacteria resemble viruses in that they
a.
perform photosynthesis.
b.
are obligate intracellular parasites.
c.
are aerobic.
d.
employ RNA as the genetic material.
 

84. 
One of the newest techniques used to identify bacteria is to determine their
a.
diseases.
b.
reproductive types.
c.
metabolic processes.
d.
nucleotide sequences.
e.
metabolic by-products.
 

85. 
Traditionally, bacteria have been grouped on the basis of all but which one of the following?
a.
mode of nutrition
b.
evolutionary relationships
c.
response to staining techniques