Name: 
 

gen bio exam #1 study guide


Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

1. 
The instructions for growth and development are in
a.
proteins.
b.
carbohydrates
c.
DNA
d.
energy
e.
homeostasis
 

2. 
Hereditary instructions must
a.
be unchanging most of the time.
b.
pass from one generation to the next.
c.
control a large number of different characteristics.
d.
provide for the rare change in instructions.
e.
all of these
 

3. 
A mutation is a change in
a.
homeostasis.
b.
the developmental pattern in an organism.
c.
metabolism.
d.
hereditary instructions.
e.
the life cycle of an organism.
 

4. 
The chemical processes in the living cell are collectively called
a.
adaptation.
b.
homeostasis.
c.
evolution.
d.
respiration.
e.
metabolism.
 

5. 
During metabolism, ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is an energy source for the following processes:
a.
reproduction and growth
b.
reproduction and maintenance
c.
growth
d.
growth and maintenance
e.
reproduction, growth, and maintenance
 

6. 
The ability to acquire, store, transfer, or utilize energy is called
a.
biochemistry.
b.
photosynthesis.
c.
metabolism.
d.
respiration.
e.
phosphorylation.
 

7. 
The ability to maintain a constant internal environment is
a.
metabolism.
b.
homeostasis.
c.
development.
d.
physiology.
e.
thermoregulation.
 

8. 
Homeostasis provides what kind of environment?
a.
positive
b.
constant
c.
limiting
d.
changing
e.
chemical and physical
 

9. 
The adjective that best describes homeostasis in living organisms is
a.
rigid.
b.
biological.
c.
dynamic.
d.
chemical.
e.
physical.
 

10. 
Each cell is able to maintain a constant internal environment. This is called
a.
metabolism.
b.
homeostasis.
c.
physiology.
d.
adaptation.
e.
evolution.
 

11. 
About 12 to 24 hours after the last meal, a person's blood sugar level normally varies from 60 to 90 milligrams per 100 milliliters of blood, although it may rise to 130 mg/100 ml after meals high in carbohydrates. That the blood sugar level is maintained within a fairly narrow range despite uneven intake of sugar is due to the body's ability to carry out
a.
adaptation.
b.
inheritance.
c.
metabolism.
d.
homeostasis.
e.
all of these
 

12. 
Which is the smallest unit of life that can exist as a separate entity?
a.
a cell
b.
a molecule
c.
an organ
d.
a population
e.
an ecosystem
 

13. 
Which of the following is defined as "all of the various species living in the same area?"
a.
ecosystem
b.
community
c.
biosphere
d.
organism
e.
population
 

14. 
Organisms designated producers obtain their energy from
a.
other producers.
b.
dead consumers.
c.
decomposers.
d.
the sun.
e.
all of these.
 

15. 
All organisms are alike in
a.
their requirements for energy.
b.
their participation in one or more nutrient cycles.
c.
their ultimate dependence on the sun.
d.
their interaction with other forms of life.
e.
all of these
 

16. 
The genus portion of a scientific name when written by hand is
a.
never capitalized; never underlined.
b.
always underlined; always capitalized.
c.
always capitalized; never underlined.
d.
never capitalized; always underlined.
e.
connected with the species names to form one word.
 

17. 
The plural for genus is
a.
genus.
b.
geni.
c.
genera.
d.
genuses.
e.
genae.
 

18. 
Which group includes all of the other groups?
a.
phylum
b.
order
c.
family
d.
genus
e.
species
 

19. 
A scientific name consists of which of the following?
a.
family name
b.
genus name
c.
species designation only
d.
family name and genus name
e.
genus name and species designation.
 

20. 
The least inclusive of the taxonomic categories listed here is
a.
family.
b.
phylum.
c.
class.
d.
order.
e.
genus.
 

21. 
Members of what kingdom are single cells of considerable internal complexity?
a.
Animalia
b.
Protista
c.
Fungi
d.
Plantae
e.
Eubacteria
 

22. 
Members of what kingdom are multicellular producers?
a.
Animalia
b.
Protista
c.
Fungi
d.
Plantae
e.
Archaebacteria
 

23. 
The animals used by Darwin to show variation in domesticated forms were
a.
pigeons.
b.
chickens.
c.
pigs.
d.
dogs.
e.
cats.
 

24. 
The principal point of the Darwin theory of evolution by natural selection was that
a.
long-term heritable changes in organisms are caused by use and disuse.
b.
those mutations that adapt an organism to a given environment somehow always arise in the greatest frequency in the organisms that occupy that environment.
c.
mutations are caused by all sorts of environmental influences.
d.
survival of characteristics in a population depends on competition between organisms, especially between members of the same species.
e.
all of these
 

25. 
Which premise used by Darwin in his theory is incorrectly stated?
a.
More offspring are produced than can survive to reproduce.
b.
Members of populations show heritable variation.
c.
Some varieties have a better chance to survive and reproduce.
d.
Organisms that possess advantageous traits have a decreased chance of producing offspring.
e.
Some traits become more common because their bearers contribute more offspring to the next generation.
 

26. 
A scientific principle is a(n)
a.
observable fact of nature.
b.
synthesis of several explanations of many observations.
c.
scientific statement.
d.
testable hypothesis.
e.
experimental procedure.
 

27. 
Of the following, which is the first explanation of a problem? It is sometimes called an "educated guess."
a.
principle
b.
law
c.
theory
d.
fact
e.
hypothesis
 

28. 
Hypotheses are
a.
often in the form of a statement.
b.
often expressed negatively.
c.
sometimes crude attempts to offer a possible explanation for observations.
d.
testable predictions.
e.
all of these
 

29. 
Which statement is true about observations in the scientific process?
a.
They are made directly.
b.
They are made indirectly.
c.
Special equipment may be necessary.
d.
They may be made with an instrument such as a microscope.
e.
all of these
 

30. 
In a scientific experiment, conditions that could affect the outcome of the experiment, but do not because they are held constant, are called
a.
independent variables.
b.
dependent variables.
c.
controlled variables.
d.
statistical variables.
e.
data set.
 

31. 
To eliminate the influence of uncontrolled variables during experimentation, one should
a.
increase the sampling error as much as possible and suspend judgment.
b.
establish a control group identical to the experimental group except for the variable being tested.
c.
use inductive reasoning to construct a hypothesis.
d.
all of these
 

32. 
Which represents the lowest degree of certainty?
a.
hypothesis
b.
conclusion
c.
fact
d.
principle
e.
theory
 

33. 
In order to arrive at a solution to a problem, a scientist usually proposes and tests
a.
laws.
b.
theories.
c.
hypotheses.
d.
principles.
e.
facts.
 

34. 
Which statement could be considered a scientific principle?
a.
Beauty pageant contestants are becoming increasingly more beautiful.
b.
Chemistry and physics are more exact sciences than biology.
c.
Radioactive isotopes can be used as tracers because radioactive isotopes behave the same as other isotopes.
d.
The growth of a plant is faster in a growth chamber than in a greenhouse.
e.
Leaves bend toward the light because they know light is needed to grow.
 

35. 
The control in an experiment
a.
makes the experiment valid.
b.
is an additional replicate for statistical purposes.
c.
reduces the experimental errors.
d.
minimizes experimental inaccuracy.
e.
allows a standard of comparison for the experimental group.
 

36. 
Which statement is false?
a.
It is easier to prove something false than true.
b.
Scientific experiments have limited applications.
c.
Experimental data are valid if they can be repeatedly obtained by the same experiment.
d.
Scientific conclusions are invalid if any step in the scientific method is omitted.
e.
Good science often uses experimentation.
 

37. 
An experimenter does all but which of the following?
a.
revises a hypothesis as a result of data collected
b.
manipulates dependent variables
c.
reviews other research results obtained by other scientists
d.
examines the effects of independent variables
e.
draws conclusions based only on appropriate experimental data
 

38. 
As a result of experimentation
a.
more hypotheses may be developed.
b.
more questions may be asked.
c.
a new biological principle could emerge.
d.
entire theories may be modified or discarded.
e.
all of these
 

39. 
In an experiment, the control group
a.
is not subjected to experimental error.
b.
is exposed to experimental treatments.
c.
is maintained under strict laboratory conditions.
d.
is treated exactly the same as the experimental group, except for the one independent variable.
e.
is statistically the most important part of the experiment.
 

40. 
The choice of whether a particular organism belongs to the experimental group or the control group should be based on
a.
age.
b.
size.
c.
chance.
d.
designation by the experimenter.
e.
sex.
 

41. 
Who first stated that the Earth circled the sun?
a.
Galileo Galilei
b.
Nicolaus Copernicus
c.
Sir Isaac Newton
d.
Cecie Starr
e.
Johannes Kepler
 

42. 
The validity of scientific discoveries should be based on
a.
morality.
b.
aesthetics.
c.
philosophy.
d.
economics.
e.
none of these
 

43. 
Science is based on
a.
faith.
b.
authority.
c.
evidence.
d.
force.
e.
consensus.
 

44. 
After an experiment is completed and the results are collected, the next step is to
a.
resample the data.
b.
generalize from the conclusion.
c.
randomize the results.
d.
organize the data.
e.
manipulate the results.
 

45. 
Which is the smallest portion of a substance that retains the properties of an element?
a.
atom
b.
compound
c.
ion
d.
molecule
e.
mixture
 

46. 
The atom that represents the greatest weight in the human body is
a.
hydrogen.
b.
carbon.
c.
nitrogen.
d.
oxygen.
e.
phosphorus.
 

47. 
The negative subatomic particle is the
a.
neutron.
b.
proton.
c.
electron.
d.
neutron and proton.
e.
proton and electron.
 

48. 
The positive subatomic particle is the
a.
neutron.
b.
proton.
c.
electron.
d.
neutron and proton.
e.
proton and electron.
 

49. 
The neutral subatomic particle is the
a.
neutron.
b.
proton.
c.
electron.
d.
neutron and proton.
e.
none of these
 

50. 
Which components of an atom do not have a charge?
a.
electrons
b.
protons
c.
neutrons
d.
electrons and protons
e.
protons and neutrons
 

51. 
The atomic number refers to the
a.
mass of an atom.
b.
number of protons in an atom.
c.
number of both protons and neutrons in an atom.
d.
number of neutrons in an atom.
e.
number of electrons in an atom.
 

52. 
The atomic number is determined by the number of
a.
neutrons and protons.
b.
neutrons and electrons.
c.
protons and electrons.
d.
protons only.
e.
neutrons only.
 

53. 
All atoms of an element have the same number of
a.
ions.
b.
protons.
c.
neutrons.
d.
electrons.
e.
protons and neutrons.
 

54. 
The nucleus of an atom contains
a.
neutrons and protons.
b.
neutrons and electrons.
c.
protons and electrons.
d.
protons only.
e.
neutrons only.
 

55. 
The atomic weight (or mass) of an atom is determined by the weight of
a.
neutrons and protons.
b.
neutrons and electrons.
c.
protons and electrons.
d.
protons only.
e.
neutrons only.
 

56. 
If the atomic weight of carbon is 12 and the atomic weight of oxygen is 16, the molecular weight of glucose C6H12O6 expressed in grams is
a.
24 grams.
b.
28 grams.
c.
52 grams.
d.
168 grams.
e.
180 grams.
 

57. 
Radioactive isotopes
a.
are electrically unbalanced.
b.
behave the same chemically and physically but differ biologically from other isotopes.
c.
are the same physically and biologically but differ from other isotopes chemically.
d.
have an excess number of neutrons.
e.
are produced when substances are exposed to radiation.
 

58. 
Radioactive isotopes have
a.
excess electrons.
b.
excess protons.
c.
excess neutrons.
d.
insufficient neutrons.
e.
insufficient protons.
 

59. 
Radioactive iodine tends to concentrate in the
a.
heart.
b.
lungs.
c.
gonads.
d.
bones.
e.
thyroid glands.
 

60. 
Which components of an atom are negatively charged?
a.
electrons
b.
protons
c.
neutrons
d.
electrons and protons
e.
protons and neutrons
 

61. 
Magnesium has 12 protons. How many electrons are in its third energy level?
a.
2
b.
4
c.
6
d.
8
e.
10
 

62. 
Magnesium has 12 protons. How many electrons are in its first energy level?
a.
2
b.
4
c.
6
d.
8
e.
10
 

63. 
Magnesium has 12 protons. How many electrons are in its second energy level?
a.
2
b.
4
c.
6
d.
8
e.
10
 

64. 
Which statement is NOT true?
a.
Electrons closest to the nucleus are at the lowest energy level.
b.
No more than two electrons can occupy a single orbital.
c.
Electrons are unable to move out of the assigned orbital space.
d.
The innermost orbital holds two electrons.
e.
At the second energy level there are four possible orbitals with a total of eight electrons.
 

65. 
When a molecule is excited by heat or light
a.
it may lose an electron.
b.
it may gain an electron.
c.
an electron from an inner energy level may move to another level.
d.
an electron from an outer energy level may move to an inner level.
e.
an electron may be ejected from the nucleus of the atom.
 

66. 
Water is an example of a(n)
a.
atom.
b.
ion.
c.
compound.
d.
mixture.
e.
element.
 

67. 
Which includes the other four?
a.
atoms
b.
molecules
c.
electrons
d.
elements
e.
protons
 

68. 
Which is NOT an element?
a.
water
b.
oxygen
c.
carbon
d.
chlorine
e.
hydrogen
 

69. 
Which is NOT a compound?
a.
salt
b.
a carbohydrate
c.
carbon
d.
a nucleotide
e.
methane
 

70. 
A molecule is
a.
a combination of two or more atoms.
b.
less stable than its constituent atoms separated.
c.
electrically charged.
d.
a carrier of one or more extra neutrons.
e.
none of these
 

71. 
What is formed when an atom loses or gains an electron?
a.
mole
b.
ion
c.
molecule
d.
bond
e.
reaction
 

72. 
The bond in table salt (NaCl) is
a.
polar.
b.
ionic.
c.
covalent.
d.
double.
e.
nonpolar.
 

73. 
How do hydrophobic molecules react with water?
a.
attracted to
b.
absorbed by
c.
repelled by
d.
mixed with
e.
polarized by
 

74. 
The shape (or tertiary form) of large molecules is often controlled by what kind of bonds?
a.
hydrogen
b.
ionic
c.
covalent
d.
inert
e.
single
 

75. 
A hydrogen bond is
a.
a sharing of a pair of electrons between a hydrogen and an oxygen nucleus.
b.
a sharing of a pair of electrons between a hydrogen nucleus and either an oxygen or a nitrogen nucleus.
c.
an attractive force that involves a hydrogen atom and an oxygen or a nitrogen atom that are either in two different molecules or within the same molecule.
d.
none of these
e.
all of these
 

76. 
Water is an excellent solvent because
a.
it forms spheres of hydration around charged substances and can form hydrogen bonds with many nonpolar substances.
b.
it has a high heat of fusion.
c.
of its cohesive properties.
d.
it is a liquid at room temperature.
e.
all of these
 

77. 
In a lipid bilayer, __________ tails point inward and form a region that excludes water.
a.
acidic
b.
basic
c.
hydrophilic
d.
hydrophobic
e.
none of these
 

78. 
Glucose dissolves in water because it
a.
ionizes.
b.
is a polysaccharide.
c.
is polar and forms many hydrogen bonds with the water molecules.
d.
has a very reactive primary structure.
e.
none of these
 

79. 
Which of the following is a naked proton?
a.
hydrogen ion
b.
acid
c.
base
d.
hydroxyl ion
e.
acceptor
 

80. 
A pH of 10 is how many times as basic as a pH of 7?
a.
2
b.
3
c.
10
d.
100
e.
1,000
 

81. 
A solution with a pH of 8 has how many times fewer hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6?
a.
2
b.
4
c.
10
d.
100
e.
1,000
 

82. 
Sodium chloride (NaCl) in water could be described by any of the following EXCEPT:
a.
Na+ and Cl- form
b.
a solute
c.
ionized
d.
forms spheres of hydration
e.
dissolved
 

83. 
A salt will dissolve in water to form
a.
acids.
b.
gases.
c.
ions.
d.
bases.
e.
polar solvents.
 

84. 
A reaction of an acid and a base will produce water and
a.
a buffer.
b.
a salt.
c.
gas.
d.
solid precipitate.
e.
solute.
 

85. 
Which of the following would NOT be used in connection with the word acid?
a.
excess hydrogen ions
b.
contents of the stomach
c.
magnesium hydroxide
d.
HCl
e.
pH less than 7
 

86. 
Cellular pH is kept near a value of 7 because of
a.
salts.
b.
buffers.
c.
acids.
d.
bases.
e.
water.
 

87. 
The three most common atoms in your body are
a.
hydrogen, oxygen, and carbon.
b.
carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen.
c.
carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen.
d.
nitrogen, hydrogen, and oxygen.
e.
carbon, oxygen, and sulfur.
 

88. 
Carbon usually forms how many bonds with other atoms?
a.
2
b.
3
c.
4
d.
5
e.
6
 

89. 
The atom diagnostically associated with organic compounds is
a.
carbon.
b.
oxygen
c.
nitrogen.
d.
sulfur.
e.
hydrogen.
 

90. 
Which are NOT macromolecules?
a.
proteins
b.
starches
c.
nucleotides
d.
lipids
e.
nucleic acids
 

91. 
Which compound is hydrophobic?
a.
ethyl alcohol
b.
simple sugar
c.
hydrocarbon
d.
glycerol
e.
amino acid
 

92. 
An -OH group is a(n) __________ group.
a.
carboxyl
b.
hydroxyl
c.
amino
d.
methyl
e.
ketone
 

93. 
A -CH3 group is a(n) __________ group.
a.
carboxyl
b.
hydroxyl
c.
amino
d.
methyl
e.
ketone
 

94. 
An -NH2 group is a(n) __________ group.
a.
carboxyl
b.
hydroxyl
c.
amino
d.
methyl
e.
ketone
 

95. 
A -COOH group is a(n) __________ group.
a.
carboxyl
b.
hydroxyl
c.
amino
d.
methyl
e.
ketone
 

96. 
Amino acids are the building blocks for
a.
proteins.
b.
steroids.
c.
lipids.
d.
nucleic acids.
e.
carbohydrates.
 

97. 
Nucleotides are the building blocks for
a.
proteins.
b.
steroids.
c.
lipids.
d.
ATP, NAD+, and FAD.
e.
carbohydrates.
 

98. 
The formation of large molecules from small repeating units is known as what kind of reaction?
a.
oxidation
b.
reduction
c.
condensation
d.
hydrolysis
e.
decarboxylation
 

99. 
The breakdown of large molecules by the enzymatic addition of water is an example of what kind of reaction?
a.
oxidation
b.
reduction
c.
condensation
d.
hydrolysis
e.
decarboxylation
 

100. 
Which reaction results in the breakdown of a chemical into simpler substances?
a.
synthesis